Is it possible to 2 = 1??
Of course not. Here i'll give you the solution
Where is the mistake?? .
The mistake is in line 7.
Since a = b ------- therefore (a^2 - ab) should be 0.
So,
2(a^2 - ab) = 1(a^2 - ab)
2(0) = 1(0)
0 = 0
PROVEN!
hehehe....do you get it??
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